PPME Block 1-7 (test-bank) / Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 1 to 7/ Complete
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PPME Block 1-7 / Primary Professional
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PPME Block 1-7 / Primary Professional
Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 2
The Culture of the Navy
RED: THIS IS THE ANSWER
BLUE: one of them is the answer (you guess)
ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM
SECTION 1: CHIEF PETTY OFFICER HISTORY, DUTIES, AND RESPONSIBILITIES
1. The only article of the CPO uniform descr...
primary professional military education enlisted block 2 the culture of the navy red this is the answer blue one of them is the answer you guess enlisted professionalism section 1 chief petty
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PPME Block 1-7 (test-bank) / Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 1 to 7/ Complete
solution guide, A+ Rated
Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted)
Block 2
The Culture of the Navy
RED: THIS IS THE ANSWER
BLUE: one of them is the answer
(you guess)
ENLISTED PROFESSIONALISM
SECTION 1: CHIEF PETTY OFFICER HISTORY, DUTIES, AND
RESPONSIBILITIES
1. The only article of the CPO uniform described in the 1897 Uniform Regulations was the?
** hat device
2. Which regulation established the grade of chief petty officer on 1 April 1893?
** U.S. Navy Regulation Circular Number 1
3. On 23 May, 1978, the CNO approved new roles and responsibilities for a chief petty officer. Which of the following was a
defined role?
** The top technical authority and expert within a rating
4. The CNO/MCPON Advisory Panel was established in 1971 to?
** Represent the enlisted force to Navy leadership on professional and personnel issues
5. The Career Compensation Act of 1949 established what significant change?
** It designated chief petty officers as paygrade E-7 instead of paygrade 1
6. What initiative led directly to the recommendation for establishing the billet of Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
** The Retention Task Force of 1964
7. In the early 1900’s Sailors of all rates were promoted to fill what first?
** Voids in critical Navy billets, normally in their own command
8. During the early 1900’s chief petty officers could receive a permanent appointment based on?
** Satisfactory performance, as evaluated by the commanding officer
9. On 28 April 1967, became the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy.
** GMCM Delbert Black
10. What is not a responsibility of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy?
** Report directly to the Chief of Naval Personnel on enlisted retention rates
11. On 13 January 1967, GMCM Delbert Black was officially appointed as the first?
** Senior Enlisted Advisor of the Navy
12. The duties and responsibilities of a master chief petty officer in 1978 were?
** broadened to include contributing to command-level policy formulation
13. The paygrades of senior chief and master chief petty officer were established in what year?
** 1958
14. The Chief Petty Officer Core Competencies were developed to?
** Strengthen chief petty officer standards
15. According to the 1918 BlueJacket’s Manual, two roles of a chief petty officer were
** Technical expert and example setter
SECTION 2: OVERVIEW OF MANPOWER MANAGEMENT
, PPME Block 1-7 (test-bank) / Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 1 to 7/ Complete
solution guide, A+ Rated
1. How often is the Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR) published?
** Monthly
2. The AMD is a single source document that provides .
** quantitative and qualitative manpower requirements
3. OPNAVINST 1300.15, Navy Military Personnel Assignment Policy, states Navy policy is to make only permanent change of
station (PCS) moves necessary for .
** national security and/or to ensure equitable treatment of Sailors
4. OPNAV Instruction 1000.16, Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures, defines manpower management as a
.
**methodical process
5. In manpower management, commands are responsible for what?
** Submitting requests to revise, add, or delete requirements
6. Which statement defines Projected Operational Environment (POE)?
** Environment in which a command is expected to operate
7. Placement is an advocate for and detailers are advocates for .
** Commands, Sailors
8. Which document provides the present and future enlisted manning of a command?
** Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR)
9. TFFMS provide access to current manpower data for?
** resource sponsors
10. Changes to the AMD can come from what factors?
** Changes in mission or equipment/systems added or deleted from the platform
11. Manpower management determines manpower authorization priorities based on available funding and .
** personal inventory
12. Where do you find current and future peacetime and mobilization manpower requirements and authorizations?
** Activity Manning Document (AMD)
13. Who prepares the statements detailing Required Operational Capability (ROC)?
** Mission and warfare sponsors
14. For whom does the Personnel Readiness and Support branch (PERS 4013) perform placement functions?
** Enlisted
15. The methodical process of determining, validating, and using manpower requirements as a basis for budget decisions defines
.
** manpower management
16. What is the single authoritative database for MPN manpower authorizations and end strength?
** Total Force Manpower Management System (TFFMS)
17. Where do you find personnel strength planning, recruiting, training, and personnel distribution?
** AMD
18. Which document defines military manpower authorizations allocated to a naval activity?
** AMD
SECTION 3: THE FLEET RESPONSE PLAN
1. “Presence with a purpose” provides what?
** Routine deployments in support of specific combatant commander objectives or on shorter “pulse” employment periods
2. Which report issued a mandate for the U.S. military to transform leading to adoption of FRP?
** 2001 Quadrennial Defense Review
3. Who did Admiral Vern Clark task with developing a plan to replace the 18-month inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)?
** Commander, Fleet Forces Command
4. When is a CSG considered surge ready?
** When they have completed integrated phase training
5. The Fleet Response Plan is often referred to as what?
, PPME Block 1-7 (test-bank) / Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 1 to 7/ Complete
solution guide, A+ Rated
** Fleet Readiness Plan
6. What time frame does the Fleet Response Plan use as its cycle?
** A 27-month cycle
7. At its core, the Fleet Response Plan is?
** a mission driven, capabilities-based response plan
8. The Fleet Response Plan calls for how many carrier strike groups to be deployable within 30 days?
** 6
9. When is a ship, sub, or squadron considered routine deployable?
**After successfully completing all necessary capabilities training including completion of underway sustainment phase training and
certification of the unit for forward deployed operations
10. Which Sea Power 21 initiative changed the way the U.S. Navy deploys and trains the Fleet?
** Sea Basing
11. What does the 6 + 2 plan provide?
** 6 CSGs available to deploy within 30 days plus 2 CSGs available to deploy within 90 days
12. Due to the war on terror, Secretary of the Navy England challenged the U.S. Navy to do what?
** Maintain its relevance
13. Under the 27-month Fleet Response Plan, a carrier strike group is surge ready for how many months? ** Approximately 16
months
14. The flexible deployment concept allows units that have attained high readiness to embark on deployments in support of specific
national priorities such as .
**homeland defense, multi-national exercises, security cooperation events, deterrent operations, or prosecution of the Global War on
Terrorism
15. When is a CSG considered in emergency surge status?
** When they have successfully completed their unit level phase training phase
SECTION 4: MILITARY FORMATIONS
1. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the Sailors?
** Open ranks
2. What type of command is the first word in “Parade Rest”?
** Preparatory
3. Traditionally, awards are handed out in what manner?
** From most senior award to most junior
4. As a leader, you can only command Sailors to the position of parade rest, from what position?
** Attention
5. Drill instills discipline and fosters what kind of habits?
** Precision and automatic response
6. During the Revolutionary War, developed a set of standardized drills for General George Washington and
the Continental Army.
** Baron von Steuben
7. Which of the following is NOT a reason to conduct a personnel inspection?
** To use as a tool to punish your Sailors
8. As a leader, you will organize your Sailors into formation for which one of the following occasions?
** Awards ceremony
9. Which event would NOT require the Commanding Officer to order the ship to man the rails?
** Leaving the shipyards after 120 days
10. Who is known as the “Drillmaster of the American Revolution”?
** Baron von Steuben
11. At the beginning of the Revolutionary War, was the leaders' primary tool to achieve discipline in ranks.
** fear
12. What do you call the extreme right or left of an element?
** FLANK
, PPME Block 1-7 (test-bank) / Primary Professional Military Education (Enlisted) Block 1 to 7/ Complete
solution guide, A+ Rated
13. Sailors are in a , when placed in formation one behind the other?
** File
14. Which of the following events would not require you, as a leader, to hold military quarters?
** Refueling evolution
15. What is the distance between ranks?
** 40
16. A/an can be a single person or a section of a larger formation.
** Element
17. When giving a command, what do you call the rise and fall of the pitch in your voice?
** inflection
18. What order allows room for the inspecting party to step between ranks to conduct an inspection of the sailors?
** OPEN RANKS
19. As a leader, which situation would cause you to expect a personnel inspection of your Sailors?
** Prior to the seasonal uniform change
SECTION 5: MILITARY UNIFORMS, CUSTOMS, AND COURTESIES
1. When in a military vehicle and an officer is seen, who renders the hand salute?
** The right front passenger seat salutes
2. What should you do when the national anthem of a friendly foreign?
** Salute
3. The Air Force rank associated with its highest enlisted pay grade is that of ?
** Chief Master Sergeant
4. How do you recognize the Sergeant Major of the U.S. Army?
** The hat insignia and rank insignia contain the eagle from the great seal
5. What does Title 10, U.S. Code mandate with respect to uniforms?
** The requirement to generate, maintain, and update the uniform regulations
6. When walking with a senior, what side do you walk on?
** LEFT
7. Who exits a military vehicle first?
** The senior leaves first
8. What is the U.S. Army’s highest enlisted pay grade?
** Sergeant Major
9. What is meant by “under arms”?
** When wearing a side arm or carrying a weapon
10. At what distance do you begin your salute when approaching an officer?
** At six paces or closest point of approach.
11. What is the definition of “prescribable items”?
** Uniform items which may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform. Items may be worn with basic uniforms at the
individual’s discretion unless otherwise directed.
12. What Army rank is associated with the E-6 pay grade?
** Staff Sergeant
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